# Asthma, COPD and Respiratory Failure for NEET PG Medicine: Spirometry, ICMR Inhaler Steps, Exacerbations, Oxygen Targets

Source: https://tracknation.in/story/asthma-copd-and-respiratory-failure-for-neet-pg-medicine-spirometry-icmr-inhaler-steps-exacerbations-oxygen-targets (TrackNation — free UPSC notes with PYQs)

> NEET PG Medicine: asthma definition and endotypes, methacholine challenge, ICMR asthma vs COPD table and stepwise inhalers, acute asthma danger signs, COPD causes, signs and spirometric severity, exacerbation features and ICMR treatment, alpha-1 antitrypsin, and hypoxaemic vs hypercapnic respiratory failure with oxygen targets, with a diagram, hooks, MCQs and cards.

## Start Here

🎯 **Exam priority: High.** *Expect: asthma vs COPD from history, the spirometric definition of COPD, methacholine
challenge, step-up inhalers (ICMR), danger signs in acute asthma (rising PaCO2), COPD exacerbation features, oxygen target 88–92% in COPD, and
type 1 vs type 2 respiratory failure.*

CBME mapping: **GM 28.1–28.26**. Lung pathology (emphysema, asthma) is in Pathology article 19; bronchodilator pharmacology in
Pharmacology.

*Asthma vs COPD, inhaler steps, exacerbations and respiratory failure. Drawn by TrackNation.*

## Asthma

- **Definition**: diffuse airway inflammation from triggers causing **partially or completely reversible**
bronchoconstriction — with airway oedema, hyperreactivity and remodelling. T2-high (eosinophilic) asthma responds to steroids and biologics.
Aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease is a recognised subtype.

- **Diagnosis**: clinical, with reversible obstruction on spirometry. If spirometry is normal, provocation with
**methacholine** (or histamine, adenosine, exercise): an FEV1 fall of ≥ 20% (> 12% in children) supports asthma.

- **Control (ICMR, over 4 weeks)**: daytime symptoms or reliever use ≤ 2 a week, no night symptoms, no limitation, FEV1 or PEF
> 80% = good control.

- **Drugs**: inhaled drugs are the mainstay. LABAs are never used alone. Montelukast (leukotriene antagonist) is less effective
than inhaled steroids. Biologics (omalizumab, dupilumab, mepolizumab) are add-ons for severe eosinophilic asthma.

- **Acute asthma**: inhaled beta-2 agonist plus anticholinergic, systemic steroids, sometimes magnesium. Danger: PaO2 < 50 mm Hg
or a **PaCO2 rising above 40 mm Hg** (tiring patient) → impending respiratory failure.

| **ICMR step**

 | **Asthma**

 | **COPD**

 |
| 1

 | Levosalbutamol 50 µg or salbutamol 100 µg as needed

 | Mild: levosalbutamol as needed

 |
| 2

 | + budesonide 100 µg twice daily

 | Moderate: + tiotropium 9 µg once daily

 |
| 3

 | Formoterol/budesonide 6/200 µg single inhaler, twice daily and as needed

 | Severe: formoterol/budesonide 6/200 µg twice daily

 |
| 4

 | + tiotropium and low-dose oral methylxanthine

 | + tiotropium and/or low-dose methylxanthine

 |
| 5

 | + low-dose oral corticosteroid; refer

 | Refer if uncontrolled or complications

 |

## COPD

- **Definition**: post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC < 0.70. Causes: tobacco, solid-fuel cooking smoke, occupational dust; in
non-smokers think **alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency** (protease-driven emphysema). Only about 15% of smokers develop clinical COPD.
Rule out TB with sputum AFB if cough lasts > 2 weeks.

- **Signs**: barrel chest, hyper-resonance, reduced breath sounds, forced expiratory time > 6 s, pursed-lip breathing,
Hoover sign; cor pulmonale (loud P2, raised JVP, oedema) in advanced disease — risk rises when FEV1 falls below about 0.8 L.

- **Severity**: by FEV1 (table), breathlessness (mMRC scale), exacerbations and complications (respiratory failure, cor pulmonale,
secondary polycythaemia).

- **Exacerbation**: increased breathlessness, sputum volume and purulence. Severe: cyanosis, RR > 30, HR > 110, SBP < 90,
SpO2 < 90%. Treat with oxygen, nebulised bronchodilators, systemic steroids (ICMR: prednisolone 30 mg for 5 days), antibiotics (amoxicillin,
azithromycin or doxycycline), and non-invasive ventilation if needed. **Target SpO2 88–92%.**

| **COPD severity (post-bronchodilator FEV1, MSD/GOLD)**

 | **Value**

 |
| Mild

 | ≥ 80% predicted

 |
| Moderate

 | 50–79%

 |
| Severe

 | 30–49%

 |
| Very severe

 | < 30%

 |

## Respiratory Failure

- **Hypoxaemic (type 1)**: inadequate oxygenation — PaO2 < 60 mm Hg, PaO2/FiO2 < 300 or SpO2 < 88%.
**Ventilatory (hypercapnic, type 2)**: inadequate CO2 removal — as in COPD exacerbations or respiratory muscle weakness (Guillain-Barré,
myasthenia gravis, botulism).

- **Clues to hypercapnia (ICMR)**: headache, bounding pulse, flapping tremor, papilloedema, drowsiness to coma.

- **Oxygen (ICMR)**: start when SpO2 < 90%, titrate to SpO2 < 96% — but 88–92% in COPD exacerbation.

## Traps the Examiner Sets

- A "normal" PaCO2 in severe asthma is a danger sign.

- COPD = post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC < 0.70.

- LABA never alone in asthma.

- COPD exacerbation: aim for 88–92%, not 100%.

- Young non-smoker with emphysema → alpha-1 antitrypsin.

## Memory Hooks & Shortcuts

*Shortcuts to lock in this article's numbers and lists. Each one only re-packages facts proven above.*

- 🧠 **Asthma Reverses, COPD Remains (post-BD FEV1/FVC < 0.70)** — asthma vs COPD

- 🧠 **88–92: COPD's Goldilocks oxygen** — oxygen target

- 🧠 **Normal CO2 in asthma = Not normal (tiring)** — acute asthma

- 🧠 **Three Ds of AECOPD: Dyspnoea, Dirty sputum, Dumping more sputum** — exacerbation

- 🧠 **CO2 retainer: Flap, Full pulse, Fuzzy head** — hypercapnia

- 🧠 **LABA Lonely = Lethal (never alone)** — LABA

## Rapid-Revision Cards

- Reversible bronchoconstriction; inflammation, hyperreactivity.

- FEV1 fall ≥ 20% (12% children).

- Eosinophilic; steroid/biologic responsive.

- SABA → + budesonide → formoterol/bud → + tiotropium → oral steroid.

- Never monotherapy in asthma.

- Less effective than ICS.

- SABA + SAMA, systemic steroid, ± magnesium.

- PaO2 < 50; PaCO2 > 40 rising.

- Post-BD FEV1/FVC < 0.70.

- ≥ 80 mild, 50–79 moderate, 30–49 severe, < 30 very severe.

- Tobacco, solid fuel, occupation; age > 35.

- Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency.

- Barrel chest, FET > 6 s, Hoover, pursed lips.

- ↑ dyspnoea, ↑ sputum, ↑ purulence.

- RR > 30, HR > 110, SpO2 < 90%, SBP < 90.

- Prednisolone 30 mg × 5 days.

- 88–92%.

- PaO2 < 60, P/F < 300.

- Hypercapnia; COPD, GBS, myasthenia.

- Headache, bounding pulse, flap, papilloedema.

- SpO2 < 90%; target < 96%.

## Sources

*Facts in this article were checked against these documents.*

- MSD Manual Professional: Asthma; Pharmacologic Treatment of Asthma; Treatment of Acute Asthma Exacerbations; COPD; Treatment of Acute COPD Exacerbation; Alpha-1 Antitrypsin Deficiency — Merck & Co. (MSD Manuals), reviewed 2025–26 (link)

- MSD Manual Professional: Overview of Respiratory Failure; Ventilatory Failure; Acute Hypoxemic Respiratory Failure — Merck & Co. (MSD Manuals), reviewed 2026 (link)

- Standard Treatment Workflows: Asthma; Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease; Respiratory Failure — ICMR / Department of Health Research, MoHFW, 2019–22 (link)

- Competency Based Undergraduate Curriculum, General Medicine (GM 28) — National Medical Commission, 2024

## Test Yourself: Practice Questions

Thirty questions in NEET PG style, most of them clinical vignettes.

## Practice Questions (NEET PG pattern)

*Original questions written in the style of the exam: +4 for a correct answer, −1 for a wrong one. Every answer
was checked against the sources listed above. NEET PG papers are not published by NBEMS, so these are not past-paper questions.*

**Q1.** A 19-year-old with eczema and allergic rhinitis has episodic wheeze and night cough; spirometry shows obstruction that improves markedly after salbutamol. The diagnosis is

- (a) interstitial lung disease

- (b) COPD

- (c) asthma

- (d) bronchiectasis

**Answer: (c)** — Reversible bronchoconstriction.

**Q2.** A patient with suspected asthma has normal spirometry. On methacholine challenge, the finding that supports asthma is a fall in FEV1 of at least

- (a) 20% (12% in children)

- (b) 2%

- (c) 5%

- (d) 50%

**Answer: (a)** — Alternatives: histamine, adenosine, exercise.

**Q3.** A 60-year-old ex-smoker has progressive breathlessness and daily cough. Post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC is 0.62. This confirms

- (a) restrictive lung disease

- (b) normal lungs

- (c) COPD

- (d) asthma

**Answer: (c)** — COPD is defined by post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC < 0.70.

**Q4.** A COPD patient's post-bronchodilator FEV1 is 42% of predicted. Airflow limitation is

- (a) moderate

- (b) very severe

- (c) mild

- (d) severe

**Answer: (d)** — Severe = 30–49%.

**Q5.** A 32-year-old non-smoker has emphysema and abnormal liver tests. The likely cause is

- (a) chronic asthma

- (b) alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

- (c) silicosis

- (d) sarcoidosis

**Answer: (b)** — Unopposed proteases destroy lung tissue.

**Q6.** In rural Indian women who have never smoked, an important COPD risk factor listed by ICMR is

- (a) solid-fuel cooking smoke

- (b) high-protein diet

- (c) contact lenses

- (d) air travel

**Answer: (a)** — Also tobacco and occupational exposure.

**Q7.** Which bedside finding supports COPD per the ICMR workflow?

- (a) clubbing always

- (b) pericardial rub

- (c) forced expiratory time > 6 seconds

- (d) stony dull percussion

**Answer: (c)** — Also barrel chest, hyper-resonance, reduced breath sounds.

**Q8.** Paradoxical inward movement of the lower rib cage during inspiration in severe COPD is the

- (a) Kussmaul sign

- (b) Hamman sign

- (c) Hoover sign

- (d) Trousseau sign

**Answer: (c)** — With pursed-lip breathing and accessory muscle use.

**Q9.** COPD patients become at risk of hypoxaemia, hypercapnia and cor pulmonale when FEV1 falls below about

- (a) 0.8 L

- (b) 3 L

- (c) 2 L

- (d) 0.1 L

**Answer: (a)** — Advanced disease.

**Q10.** The three cardinal symptoms of a COPD exacerbation are increased

- (a) weight, appetite and sleep

- (b) fever, rash and joint pain

- (c) chest pain, palpitations and syncope

- (d) breathlessness, sputum volume and sputum purulence

**Answer: (d)** — Anthonisen-type features.

**Q11.** A COPD patient in exacerbation is given oxygen. The SpO2 target recommended by the ICMR respiratory failure workflow is

- (a) 80–84%

- (b) 98–100%

- (c) 88–92%

- (d) any value above 95%

**Answer: (c)** — Higher targets risk worsening hypercapnia.

**Q12.** The ICMR oral steroid regimen for a COPD exacerbation is

- (a) dexamethasone 20 mg single dose

- (b) prednisolone 60 mg for 6 weeks

- (c) prednisolone 30 mg daily for 5 days

- (d) no steroids

**Answer: (c)** — With bronchodilators and antibiotics.

**Q13.** Features of a severe COPD exacerbation (ICMR) include

- (a) respiratory rate > 30/min and heart rate > 110/min

- (b) normal sensorium and RR 18

- (c) mild cough only

- (d) SpO2 97% at rest

**Answer: (a)** — Also cyanosis, SBP < 90, SpO2 < 90%.

**Q14.** Complications that place COPD in the severe ICMR category include

- (a) respiratory failure, cor pulmonale and secondary polycythaemia

- (b) allergic rhinitis

- (c) eczema

- (d) anaemia only

**Answer: (a)** — The worst category decides severity.

**Q15.** In the ICMR asthma workflow, an uncontrolled patient on as-needed reliever alone should be stepped up by adding

- (a) an oral antihistamine

- (b) oral antibiotics

- (c) inhaled budesonide (a corticosteroid)

- (d) oral theophylline only

**Answer: (c)** — Inhaled drugs are the mainstay.

**Q16.** A long-acting beta-agonist in asthma should

- (a) be used only in children

- (b) replace inhaled steroids

- (c) be used only orally

- (d) never be used as monotherapy

**Answer: (d)** — Combine with an inhaled steroid.

**Q17.** Montelukast compared with inhaled steroids for persistent asthma is

- (a) more effective

- (b) identical

- (c) less effective

- (d) contraindicated

**Answer: (c)** — A leukotriene receptor antagonist.

**Q18.** A severe asthmatic with high blood eosinophils despite maximal inhaled therapy may receive add-on

- (a) dupilumab or another biologic

- (b) aspirin

- (c) atenolol

- (d) propranolol

**Answer: (a)** — Omalizumab, mepolizumab are others.

**Q19.** A patient in acute severe asthma becomes drowsy; ABG shows PaO2 48 mm Hg and PaCO2 46 mm Hg. This indicates

- (a) improvement

- (b) hyperventilation from anxiety

- (c) metabolic alkalosis

- (d) progression to respiratory failure

**Answer: (d)** — A rising PaCO2 in asthma is ominous.

**Q20.** Standard treatment of an acute asthma exacerbation includes

- (a) inhaled beta-2 agonist with anticholinergic plus systemic steroids

- (b) antitussives

- (c) oral montelukast alone

- (d) beta-blockers

**Answer: (a)** — Sometimes magnesium.

**Q21.** Asthma is well controlled (ICMR) when, over the past 4 weeks, FEV1 or PEF is

- (a) below 50%

- (b) below 80%

- (c) above 80% of predicted or personal best

- (d) irrelevant

**Answer: (c)** — With minimal symptoms and reliever use.

**Q22.** Asthma that worsens after aspirin intake belongs to

- (a) aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease

- (b) Churg-Strauss only

- (c) allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

- (d) COPD

**Answer: (a)** — Dysregulated arachidonic acid metabolism.

**Q23.** The ICMR asthma vs COPD table says asthma typically begins

- (a) only after smoking

- (b) only in the elderly

- (c) in childhood or early adulthood

- (d) in the 5th decade

**Answer: (c)** — COPD usually starts in the 4th–5th decade.

**Q24.** Acute hypoxaemic respiratory failure is defined by

- (a) SpO2 < 95%

- (b) PaCO2 > 45 only

- (c) PaO2 < 60 mm Hg, P/F < 300 or SpO2 < 88%

- (d) pH > 7.45

**Answer: (c)** — Type 1 failure.

**Q25.** A patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome develops rising PaCO2. This is

- (a) normal

- (b) hypoxaemic failure from pneumonia only

- (c) ventilatory (hypercapnic) respiratory failure from muscle weakness

- (d) metabolic acidosis

**Answer: (c)** — Also myasthenia gravis and botulism.

**Q26.** Per ICMR, oxygen therapy should be started when SpO2 falls below

- (a) 98%

- (b) 90%

- (c) 95% in all

- (d) 80%

**Answer: (b)** — Titrate to < 96% (88–92% in COPD).

**Q27.** A drowsy COPD patient has headache, bounding pulse and a flapping tremor. The likely abnormality is

- (a) hypoglycaemia

- (b) hyponatraemia

- (c) hypercapnia

- (d) hypocalcaemia

**Answer: (c)** — CO2 retention; papilloedema and coma may follow.

**Q28.** Only about what share of smokers develop clinically apparent COPD?

- (a) 15%

- (b) 90%

- (c) 50%

- (d) 1%

**Answer: (a)** — Smoking is still the main risk factor.

**Q29.** In the ICMR COPD workflow, a moderate COPD patient is treated with

- (a) theophylline alone

- (b) oral prednisolone daily

- (c) no inhaler

- (d) tiotropium once daily plus as-needed levosalbutamol

**Answer: (d)** — Severe adds formoterol/budesonide.

**Q30.** Treatment of an acute COPD exacerbation typically includes all EXCEPT

- (a) bronchodilators

- (b) antibiotics when indicated

- (c) long-term oral steroids for months

- (d) oxygen

**Answer: (c)** — Systemic steroids are short courses; NIV if failure.

### Active Recall

From memory: define asthma and describe its diagnosis and ICMR stepwise therapy; list acute asthma treatment and danger signs; define COPD, its causes, signs and severity grades; describe exacerbation recognition, treatment and oxygen target; and contrast hypoxaemic and ventilatory respiratory failure.
