Skin, CNS and Eye for NEET PG Pathology: Basal Cell Carcinoma, Squamous Cell Carcinoma, Melanoma, Meningitis CSF, Brain Tumours, Retinoblastoma

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🎯 Exam priority: High. Expect: CSF patterns of bacterial, viral and TB meningitis, organisms by age, Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome, the commonest skin cancer, BCC vs SCC, melanoma types and depth, astrocytoma grades, 1p/19q, meningioma in women, medulloblastoma site, and retinoblastoma genetics.

CBME mapping: PA 33.1–33.4, 34.1–34.3, 35.1. This closes the Pathology playlist; CSF examination basics are in article 16.

Meningitis CSF patterns, skin tumours, CNS tumours and retinoblastoma

Meningitis CSF, skin tumours, brain tumours and retinoblastoma. Drawn by TrackNation.

Skin Tumours

  • Basal cell carcinoma: the commonest skin cancer, in fair, sun-exposed skin (very rare in dark skin). A shiny papule that grows a pearly border with telangiectases and a central dell or ulcer. It invades locally but rarely metastasises.

  • Squamous cell carcinoma: the second commonest; sun-exposed skin; may arise in an actinic keratosis, oral leukoplakia or a burn scar; commoner with chronic immunosuppression; metastasises in advanced stages. Keratoacanthoma: a firm round nodule with a central crater.

  • Melanoma arises from melanocytes (skin, mucosa, eye, CNS); metastasis tracks the depth of dermal invasion. Superficial spreading (70%) — young adults, intermittent sun, often from a precursor nevus, BRAF V600; lentigo maligna melanoma (15%) — older adults, face; nodular (~5%). Warning signs: asymmetry, irregular border, mottled colour. Risks: many or atypical moles, giant congenital nevus > 20 cm, dysplastic nevus syndrome, CDKN2A (p16) mutations, immunosuppression.

  • Kaposi sarcoma: endothelial tumour driven by HHV-8; far commoner with HIV or transplant immunosuppression.

Meningitis

  • Bacterial: neonates — group B streptococci, E. coli, Listeria; older infants, children and young adults — N. meningitidis and S. pneumoniae. Hib, once the commonest, is now rare in the US and Western Europe. Meningococcal sepsis can cause bilateral adrenal haemorrhagic infarction — Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome.

  • Viral: enteroviruses (summer, early autumn); lymphocytes with near-normal glucose. Chronic (≥ 4 weeks): TB, fungi (Cryptococcus in HIV), others — lymphocyte-predominant, low glucose, high protein.

Meningitis

Cells

Glucose

Protein

Usual cause

Acute bacterial

Neutrophils; turbid, high pressure

Low

High

Neonate: GBS, E. coli, Listeria; later: meningococcus, pneumococcus

Viral

Lymphocytes

Near normal

Slightly high

Enteroviruses

Chronic (≥ 4 weeks)

Mixed, lymphocyte-predominant

Low

High

TB, fungi (Cryptococcus in HIV)

CNS Tumours and Retinoblastoma

  • Brain metastases are about 10 times commoner than primary tumours.

  • Astrocytomas are the commonest gliomas: grade I pilocytic (and SEGA in tuberous sclerosis), II low-grade, III anaplastic, IV glioblastoma. Secondary glioblastomas carry IDH1/IDH2 mutations. Oligodendroglioma: 1p/19q codeletion — diagnostic, with longer survival and better treatment response.

  • Meningioma: among the commonest intracranial tumours; the only brain tumour commoner in women; median age 67. Medulloblastoma: a primitive neuroectodermal tumour presenting as a posterior fossa mass with hydrocephalus; spreads through CSF.

  • Retinoblastoma: children under 2; leukocoria (white pupil) and squint. Both alleles of RB1 (13q14) are lost — in hereditary cases one is germline and the second somatic (two-hit model). 40% bilateral, and bilateral disease is always heritable. A third of hereditary patients develop second cancers (sarcomas, osteosarcoma) within 50 years.

Traps the Examiner Sets

  • BCC rarely metastasises; SCC can; melanoma spread depends on depth.

  • Low CSF glucose + neutrophils = bacterial; low glucose + lymphocytes = TB/fungal; normal glucose + lymphocytes = viral.

  • Neonatal meningitis: GBS, E. coli, Listeria — not meningococcus.

  • Bilateral retinoblastoma = always hereditary; watch for osteosarcoma later.

Memory Hooks & Shortcuts

Shortcuts to lock in this article's numbers and lists. Each one only re-packages facts proven above.

  • 🧠 BCC Barely spreads; SCC Sometimes spreads; melanoma by depth — skin cancer spread

  • 🧠 Newborn meningitis = 'GEL' (GBS, E. coli, Listeria) — neonatal meningitis

  • 🧠 Low sugar + polys = bugs; low sugar + lymphs = TB/fungus; normal sugar + lymphs = virus — CSF

  • 🧠 1p/19q = 'Oh, good' (oligodendroglioma, better outlook) — oligodendroglioma

  • 🧠 Meningioma likes Madam (women) — meningioma

  • 🧠 RB: two hits on 13; both eyes = born with it — retinoblastoma

Rapid-Revision Cards

  • Commonest skin cancer

    Basal cell carcinoma.

  • BCC look

    Pearly border, telangiectases, central dell.

  • BCC spread

    Local invasion; rarely metastasises.

  • SCC origins

    Actinic keratosis, leukoplakia, burn scar.

  • SCC risk

    Chronic immunosuppression.

  • Keratoacanthoma

    Firm nodule, central crater.

  • Melanoma prognosis

    Depth of dermal invasion.

  • Superficial spreading

    70%; young; nevus; BRAF.

  • Lentigo maligna melanoma

    15%; older; face.

  • Nodular melanoma

    ~5%.

  • Melanoma gene (familial)

    CDKN2A (p16).

  • Kaposi

    HHV-8; HIV, transplant.

  • Neonatal meningitis

    GBS, E. coli, Listeria.

  • Child/young adult meningitis

    Meningococcus, pneumococcus.

  • Waterhouse-Friderichsen

    Meningococcal sepsis; adrenal haemorrhage.

  • Bacterial CSF

    Neutrophils, low glucose, high protein.

  • Viral CSF

    Lymphocytes, near-normal glucose.

  • Chronic meningitis CSF

    Lymphocytes, low glucose; TB, fungi.

  • Brain metastases

    ~10× primaries.

  • Glioma grades

    I pilocytic/SEGA; IV glioblastoma.

  • Oligodendroglioma

    1p/19q codeletion; better outlook.

  • Meningioma

    Only brain tumour commoner in women.

  • Medulloblastoma

    Posterior fossa; CSF spread.

  • Retinoblastoma

    < 2 y; leukocoria; RB1 13q14; two hits.

  • Bilateral RB

    Always heritable; osteosarcoma later.

Sources

Facts in this article were checked against these documents.

  • MSD Manual Professional: Basal Cell Carcinoma; Squamous Cell Carcinoma; Keratoacanthoma; Melanoma; Kaposi Sarcoma — Merck & Co. (MSD Manuals), reviewed 2025–26 (link)

  • MSD Manual Professional: Acute Bacterial Meningitis; Viral Meningitis; Subacute and Chronic Meningitis — Merck & Co. (MSD Manuals), reviewed 2025–26 (link)

  • MSD Manual Professional: Overview of CNS Tumors; Gliomas; Meningiomas; Medulloblastomas; Retinoblastoma — Merck & Co. (MSD Manuals), reviewed 2025–26 (link)

  • Competency Based Undergraduate Curriculum, Pathology (PA 33–35) — National Medical Commission, 2024

Test Yourself: Practice Questions

Thirty questions in NEET PG style, most of them clinical vignettes.

Practice Questions (NEET PG pattern)

Original questions written in the style of the exam: +4 for a correct answer, −1 for a wrong one. Every answer was checked against the sources listed above. NEET PG papers are not published by NBEMS, so these are not past-paper questions.

Q1. The commonest skin cancer is

  • (a) basal cell carcinoma

  • (b) melanoma

  • (c) Merkel cell carcinoma

  • (d) squamous cell carcinoma

Show answer

Answer: (a) — Mostly in fair, sun-exposed skin.


Q2. A fair-skinned person with long sun exposure has a slowly enlarging papule with a shiny pearly border, surface telangiectases and a central dell. The lesion

  • (a) is basal cell carcinoma, which invades locally but rarely metastasises

  • (b) is a benign keratoacanthoma

  • (c) is melanoma with early spread

  • (d) is squamous carcinoma always metastatic

Show answer

Answer: (a) — Local invasion can still damage vital structures.


Q3. A skin cancer develops in an old burn scar. The likely type is

  • (a) melanoma

  • (b) Kaposi sarcoma

  • (c) basal cell carcinoma

  • (d) squamous cell carcinoma

Show answer

Answer: (d) — SCC may also arise in actinic keratosis or leukoplakia.


Q4. A patient on chronic immunosuppression is at particular risk of

  • (a) seborrhoeic keratosis

  • (b) basal cell carcinoma only

  • (c) cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma

  • (d) dermatofibroma

Show answer

Answer: (c) — Chronic immunosuppression raises SCC risk.


Q5. A firm round skin nodule with sharply sloping borders and a central crater is

  • (a) melanoma

  • (b) molluscum

  • (c) keratoacanthoma

  • (d) basal cell carcinoma

Show answer

Answer: (c) — It arises on sun-exposed skin of older adults.


Q6. The single most important predictor of metastasis in cutaneous melanoma is

  • (a) colour

  • (b) patient sex

  • (c) depth of dermal invasion

  • (d) diameter alone

Show answer

Answer: (c) — Pathologists report the maximal thickness.


Q7. The commonest type of melanoma, often on a young woman's leg and often arising from a pre-existing nevus, is

  • (a) lentigo maligna melanoma

  • (b) nodular melanoma

  • (c) acral lentiginous melanoma

  • (d) superficial spreading melanoma (70%)

Show answer

Answer: (d) — Commonly BRAF V600 mutated.


Q8. An elderly man has a melanoma arising in a freckle-like tan-brown macule on his chronically sun-exposed face. The type is

  • (a) seborrhoeic keratosis

  • (b) superficial spreading melanoma

  • (c) basal cell carcinoma

  • (d) lentigo maligna melanoma

Show answer

Answer: (d) — 15% of melanomas; arises from lentigo maligna (Hutchinson freckle).


Q9. A familial melanoma syndrome is linked to germline mutation of the tumour suppressor

  • (a) RB1 only

  • (b) APC

  • (c) CDKN2A (p16)

  • (d) VHL

Show answer

Answer: (c) — Also BAP1 and CHEK2.


Q10. Which skin lesion is a recognised melanoma risk factor?

  • (a) a giant congenital melanocytic nevus over 20 cm

  • (b) a cherry angioma

  • (c) a skin tag

  • (d) a seborrhoeic keratosis

Show answer

Answer: (a) — Also many or atypical moles and dysplastic nevus syndrome.


Q11. Multicentric vascular skin tumours in a patient with advanced HIV arise from endothelial cells driven by

  • (a) human herpesvirus 8

  • (b) HPV 16

  • (c) CMV

  • (d) EBV

Show answer

Answer: (a) — Kaposi sarcoma; also after transplantation.


Q12. A 2-week-old has bacterial meningitis with neutrophils in the CSF. The likely organisms include

  • (a) group B streptococci, E. coli and Listeria

  • (b) enteroviruses

  • (c) meningococcus and pneumococcus

  • (d) Cryptococcus

Show answer

Answer: (a) — Meningococcus and pneumococcus dominate later.


Q13. In children and young adults, the commonest causes of bacterial meningitis are

  • (a) Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae

  • (b) Listeria and E. coli

  • (c) Staphylococcus aureus

  • (d) Hib only

Show answer

Answer: (a) — Hib is now rare where vaccinated.


Q14. A teenager with meningococcal sepsis develops coagulopathy and bilateral adrenal haemorrhagic infarction. This is

  • (a) Addison disease from TB

  • (b) Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

  • (c) Sheehan syndrome

  • (d) Cushing syndrome

Show answer

Answer: (b) — Coagulopathy accompanies it.


Q15. CSF that is turbid, under high pressure, with many neutrophils, high protein and a low CSF:blood glucose ratio suggests

  • (a) viral meningitis

  • (b) acute bacterial meningitis

  • (c) multiple sclerosis

  • (d) normal CSF

Show answer

Answer: (b) — Bacteria consume glucose.


Q16. In summer, a young adult has meningitis; CSF shows lymphocytes, near-normal glucose and slightly raised protein. The likely cause is

  • (a) enteroviruses

  • (b) Cryptococcus

  • (c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

  • (d) Neisseria meningitidis

Show answer

Answer: (a) — Still treat as bacterial until excluded.


Q17. A patient has meningitis for 5 weeks; CSF shows lymphocyte-predominant cells, low glucose and high protein. The likely group is

  • (a) acute bacterial meningitis

  • (b) viral meningitis

  • (c) subarachnoid haemorrhage

  • (d) chronic meningitis — TB or fungal

Show answer

Answer: (d) — Chronic meningitis lasts at least 4 weeks.


Q18. An HIV patient with low CD4 count develops chronic meningitis. The commonest fungal cause in this setting is

  • (a) Aspergillus

  • (b) Candida albicans

  • (c) Cryptococcus neoformans

  • (d) Histoplasma

Show answer

Answer: (c) — Most common among immunocompromised patients.


Q19. Compared with primary brain tumours, brain metastases are

  • (a) seen only in children

  • (b) rarer

  • (c) about 10 times more common

  • (d) equally common

Show answer

Answer: (c) — Always consider a primary elsewhere.


Q20. The commonest type of glioma is

  • (a) astrocytoma

  • (b) ependymoma

  • (c) medulloblastoma

  • (d) oligodendroglioma

Show answer

Answer: (a) — Graded I–IV.


Q21. A WHO grade IV astrocytic tumour is

  • (a) glioblastoma

  • (b) subependymal giant cell astrocytoma

  • (c) anaplastic astrocytoma

  • (d) pilocytic astrocytoma

Show answer

Answer: (a) — Anaplastic astrocytoma is grade III.


Q22. A frontal-lobe glioma shows codeletion of 1p and 19q. This points to

  • (a) glioblastoma

  • (b) meningioma

  • (c) medulloblastoma

  • (d) oligodendroglioma with a better prognosis

Show answer

Answer: (d) — Diagnostic of oligodendroglial tumours; predicts longer survival.


Q23. Secondary glioblastomas typically carry mutations in

  • (a) VHL

  • (b) RB1

  • (c) BRAF V600E

  • (d) IDH1 or IDH2

Show answer

Answer: (d) — They arise from lower-grade astrocytomas.


Q24. A child with tuberous sclerosis has a grade I astrocytic tumour near the ventricles. It is

  • (a) oligodendroglioma

  • (b) ependymoma

  • (c) subependymal giant cell astrocytoma

  • (d) glioblastoma

Show answer

Answer: (c) — Grade I with pilocytic astrocytoma.


Q25. The only brain tumour more common in women is

  • (a) medulloblastoma

  • (b) primary CNS lymphoma

  • (c) glioblastoma

  • (d) meningioma

Show answer

Answer: (d) — Median age about 67.


Q26. A patient presents with a posterior fossa mass and obstructive hydrocephalus; the tumour can spread through CSF. The likely tumour is

  • (a) glioblastoma

  • (b) meningioma

  • (c) craniopharyngioma

  • (d) medulloblastoma

Show answer

Answer: (d) — A primitive neuroectodermal tumour; staged with lumbar puncture and craniospinal imaging.


Q27. An 18-month-old's photo shows a white pupillary reflex in one eye, and the child has a squint. The likely diagnosis and gene are

  • (a) congenital cataract — no gene

  • (b) retinoblastoma — RB1 on 13q14

  • (c) neuroblastoma — MYCN

  • (d) retinopathy of prematurity

Show answer

Answer: (b) — Leukocoria is the classic sign.


Q28. In hereditary retinoblastoma, tumour develops when

  • (a) one allele is mutated only

  • (b) a germline RB1 mutation is followed by a somatic mutation of the other allele

  • (c) both alleles are normal

  • (d) RB1 is amplified

Show answer

Answer: (b) — The two-hit model.


Q29. A child has retinoblastoma in both eyes. This disease is

  • (a) caused by HPV

  • (b) never heritable

  • (c) always heritable

  • (d) usually acquired from radiation

Show answer

Answer: (c) — About 40% of patients have bilateral disease.


Q30. A survivor of hereditary retinoblastoma is at increased risk of which later cancer?

  • (a) osteosarcoma

  • (b) papillary thyroid carcinoma

  • (c) Hodgkin lymphoma

  • (d) seminoma

Show answer

Answer: (a) — About a third develop second cancers within 50 years.

Active Recall

From memory: contrast basal and squamous cell carcinoma; give melanoma types, risk factors and the main prognostic factor; name Kaposi sarcoma's cause; give meningitis organisms by age and the CSF pattern of bacterial, viral and chronic meningitis; describe glioma grades, oligodendroglioma genetics, meningioma and medulloblastoma; and explain retinoblastoma genetics and presentation.