Inflammation and Repair for NEET PG Pathology: Leukocyte Steps, Mediators, Granulomas, Phagocyte Defects, Wound Healing

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🎯 Exam priority: High. Expect: steps of leukocyte emigration and their molecules, mediator actions, pyrogens, the three phagocyte defects by their clues, giant-cell types, caseating vs non-caseating granulomas, and keloid vs hypertrophic scar.

CBME mapping: PA 3.1–3.4, 4.1.

Leukocyte steps, mediators, granulomas, phagocyte defects, healing and scars

Leukocyte steps, mediators, granulomas, phagocyte defects and healing. Drawn by TrackNation.

Acute Inflammation

  • Cardinal signs: pain, heat, redness, swelling and loss of function.

  • Exudate: fluid, cells and proteins slowly leaving vessels in inflamed tissue. Transudate: thin, watery, few cells or proteins. Oedema = abnormal fluid in tissues or body cavities.

  • Neutrophil journey: rolling on endothelium (selectins) → activation by chemokines, flattening and firm attachment (integrins) → chemotaxis up a chemical gradient (e.g. IL-8) → phagocytosis → killing by the respiratory burst (NADPH oxidase makes superoxide).

Mediator (MeSH/MSD)

Main action

Histamine (from histidine)

Vasodilator, bronchoconstrictor

Bradykinin

Arteriolar dilation, more capillary permeability (short-lived)

Prostaglandins (COX pathway)

Potent mediators; PGE2 drives fever

Leukotrienes (5-lipoxygenase)

Immediate hypersensitivity, inflammation

Platelet-activating factor

Platelet aggregation, anaphylactic symptoms

IL-8 (CXC chemokine)

Neutrophil chemotaxis

IL-1, TNF-α, IL-6

Endogenous pyrogens

C3a, C5a

Anaphylatoxins

Fever and the Acute-Phase Response

  • Exogenous pyrogens (e.g. endotoxin, the lipopolysaccharide of Gram-negative bacteria) release endogenous pyrogens — IL-1, TNF-α, IL-6 — and PGE2 resets the hypothalamic thermostat. A rise without a reset set point is hyperthermia, not fever.

  • The liver changes acute-phase protein output; CRP rises in inflammation and tissue damage. ESR measures how fast red cells settle. Leukocytosis is a transient rise in white cells. An abscess is a collection of pus.

When Phagocytes Fail

Phagocyte defect (MSD/MeSH)

Defect

Clue

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency (AR)

β2 integrins (CD11/CD18) → neutrophils cannot leave vessels

No pus, high WBC, cord separation > 3 weeks

Chronic granulomatous disease (> 50% X-linked)

No oxidative burst (NADPH oxidase) → ingest but cannot kill

Catalase-positive infections, Aspergillus; DHR/NBT test

Chédiak-Higashi syndrome (AR)

Abnormal lysosomes

Oculocutaneous albinism, pyogenic infections, lymphoreticular cancers

Chronic and Granulomatous Inflammation

  • A granuloma is a small nodule of grouped mononuclear phagocytes. Epithelioid cells are macrophages activated by prolonged antigen exposure; they fuse into giant cells.

  • Langhans giant cells: nuclei in a peripheral horseshoe — TB, syphilis, sarcoidosis, deep fungal infection. Foreign-body giant cells: nuclei scattered irregularly, around foreign material.

  • TB: epithelioid granulomas with caseous centres. Sarcoidosis: non-caseating granulomas, cause unknown, mostly lungs and lymph nodes; macrophages activate vitamin D → hypercalcaemia; ACE may be raised but is non-specific.

Repair and Healing

  • Regeneration replaces tissue; repair restores integrity with connective tissue. Granulation tissue = new capillaries with lymphocytes, macrophages and plasma cells on a healing surface. Contractile myofibroblasts work in granulation tissue and in fibrosis. Collagen is about one-third of body protein.

  • Keloid: fibroblastic overgrowth that extends beyond the wound margins (earlobes, shoulders, upper arms, chest). Hypertrophic scar: stays within the wound and may regress. Fibrosis: fibrous tissue invading an organ after injury.

  • Scurvy (vitamin C deficiency): defective collagen in small vessels — bleeding, spongy gums, anaemia, impaired wound healing.

Traps the Examiner Sets

  • Selectins = rolling; integrins = firm adhesion (LAD = CD18).

  • CGD: phagocytes engulf but cannot kill; catalase-positive bugs. LAD: no pus and late cord fall.

  • Langhans = horseshoe nuclei; foreign-body = scattered nuclei.

  • Keloid crosses the wound edge; hypertrophic scar does not.

Memory Hooks & Shortcuts

Shortcuts to lock in this article's numbers and lists. Each one only re-packages facts proven above.

  • 🧠 Selectins Slow them, Integrins Imprison them — rolling vs firm adhesion

  • 🧠 Eight calls the neutrophils to the fight — IL-8 chemotaxis

  • 🧠 CGD: Can Grab, Doesn't digest — CGD mechanism

  • 🧠 LAD: Leukocytes Aren't Departing (no pus, late cord) — leukocyte adhesion deficiency

  • 🧠 Langhans = Lucky horseshoe — Langhans giant cells

  • 🧠 Keloid Keeps going beyond the edge — keloid vs hypertrophic

  • 🧠 1, 6 and TNF light the fire — pyrogens

Rapid-Revision Cards

  • Cardinal signs

    Pain, heat, redness, swelling, loss of function.

  • Exudate vs transudate

    Cells + protein vs thin, watery, few cells.

  • Rolling

    Selectins.

  • Firm adhesion

    Integrins (CD11/CD18).

  • Neutrophil chemokine

    IL-8.

  • Respiratory burst

    NADPH oxidase → superoxide.

  • Histamine

    Vasodilator, bronchoconstrictor.

  • Bradykinin

    Dilation + permeability, short-lived.

  • COX vs 5-LOX

    Prostaglandins vs leukotrienes.

  • Endogenous pyrogens

    IL-1, TNF-α, IL-6 → PGE2.

  • Hyperthermia

    High temperature, set point unchanged.

  • CRP / ESR

    Acute-phase protein / red-cell settling.

  • LAD

    AR; CD18; no pus; cord > 3 weeks.

  • CGD

    > 50% X-linked; catalase+; DHR/NBT.

  • Chédiak-Higashi

    AR; albinism; abnormal lysosomes.

  • Epithelioid cell

    Activated macrophage.

  • Langhans

    Horseshoe nuclei — TB, sarcoid.

  • Foreign-body giant cell

    Scattered nuclei.

  • Sarcoidosis

    Non-caseating; vitamin D activation; ACE non-specific.

  • Granulation tissue

    Capillaries + lymphocytes, macrophages, plasma cells.

  • Keloid vs hypertrophic

    Beyond vs within margins.

  • Scurvy

    Collagen defect; gums, bleeding, poor healing.

Sources

Facts in this article were checked against these documents.

  • Medical Subject Headings (MeSH) scope notes — US National Library of Medicine, accessed 2026 (link)

  • MSD Manual Professional: Fever; Chronic Granulomatous Disease; Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency; Sarcoidosis; Keloids; Vitamin C Deficiency — Merck & Co. (MSD Manuals), reviewed 2025–26 (link)

  • MSD Manual Professional: Complement System; Tuberculosis — Merck & Co. (MSD Manuals), reviewed 2025–26 (link)

  • Competency Based Undergraduate Curriculum, Pathology (PA 3–4) — National Medical Commission, 2024

Test Yourself: Practice Questions

Thirty-two questions in NEET PG style, most of them clinical vignettes.

Practice Questions (NEET PG pattern)

Original questions written in the style of the exam: +4 for a correct answer, −1 for a wrong one. Every answer was checked against the sources listed above. NEET PG papers are not published by NBEMS, so these are not past-paper questions.

Q1. The classic signs of acute inflammation are

  • (a) fever only

  • (b) pallor, cold and numbness

  • (c) itching and scaling

  • (d) pain, heat, redness, swelling and loss of function

Show answer

Answer: (d) — MeSH definition of inflammation.


Q2. Fluid from a patient's swollen ankles is thin and watery with very few cells and little protein. It is

  • (a) an exudate

  • (b) pus

  • (c) a transudate

  • (d) chyle

Show answer

Answer: (c) — Exudates carry cells and proteins from inflamed vessels.


Q3. The first loose contact of neutrophils with inflamed endothelium, in which they tumble along the vessel wall, depends mainly on

  • (a) selectins

  • (b) integrins

  • (c) immunoglobulins

  • (d) collagen

Show answer

Answer: (a) — Rolling; then chemokine activation and firm adhesion.


Q4. An infant has recurrent infections without pus, a persistently high white count and the umbilical cord fell off after 4 weeks. The defect is in

  • (a) lysosomes

  • (b) NADPH oxidase

  • (c) β2 integrins (CD11/CD18) — leukocyte adhesion deficiency

  • (d) complement C5

Show answer

Answer: (c) — Neutrophils cannot leave vessels; autosomal recessive.


Q5. The chemokine that chiefly draws neutrophils to a site of acute inflammation is

  • (a) IL-10

  • (b) IL-4

  • (c) IL-8 (a CXC chemokine)

  • (d) interferon-γ

Show answer

Answer: (c) — Chemotaxis follows a chemical gradient.


Q6. Neutrophils kill ingested bacteria by a sudden rise in oxygen use that makes superoxide. The enzyme is

  • (a) myeloperoxidase alone

  • (b) cyclooxygenase

  • (c) NADPH oxidase (respiratory burst)

  • (d) lysozyme

Show answer

Answer: (c) — Defective in chronic granulomatous disease.


Q7. A boy has recurrent abscesses and lung granulomas; cultures grow Staphylococcus aureus and Aspergillus. The DHR test shows no oxidative burst. The diagnosis is

  • (a) complement C5 deficiency

  • (b) chronic granulomatous disease

  • (c) Chédiak-Higashi syndrome

  • (d) leukocyte adhesion deficiency

Show answer

Answer: (b) — Catalase-positive organisms; Aspergillus is the leading cause of death.


Q8. In chronic granulomatous disease, phagocytes

  • (a) ingest bacteria but fail to kill and digest them

  • (b) are absent

  • (c) cannot leave blood vessels

  • (d) cannot ingest bacteria

Show answer

Answer: (a) — More than half of cases are X-linked recessive.


Q9. A child with oculocutaneous albinism has recurrent pyogenic infections; many cell types contain abnormal lysosomes. The diagnosis is

  • (a) Down syndrome

  • (b) Chédiak-Higashi syndrome (autosomal recessive)

  • (c) chronic granulomatous disease

  • (d) leukocyte adhesion deficiency

Show answer

Answer: (b) — High incidence of lymphoreticular neoplasms.


Q10. Bradykinin contributes to inflammatory swelling by

  • (a) arteriolar dilation and increased capillary permeability

  • (b) neutrophil chemotaxis only

  • (c) platelet aggregation

  • (d) fever only

Show answer

Answer: (a) — Potent but short-lived.


Q11. Prostaglandins are made from arachidonic acid by the

  • (a) kinin system

  • (b) cyclooxygenase pathway

  • (c) complement cascade

  • (d) 5-lipoxygenase pathway

Show answer

Answer: (b) — Leukotrienes come from 5-lipoxygenase.


Q12. Leukotrienes are formed from arachidonic acid by

  • (a) 5-lipoxygenase

  • (b) phospholipase only

  • (c) NADPH oxidase

  • (d) cyclooxygenase

Show answer

Answer: (a) — Involved in immediate hypersensitivity and inflammation.


Q13. A phospholipid mediator from platelets, basophils and macrophages that causes platelet aggregation and anaphylactic hypotension is

  • (a) IL-8

  • (b) histamine

  • (c) bradykinin

  • (d) platelet-activating factor

Show answer

Answer: (d) — MeSH.


Q14. The endogenous pyrogens that cause fever in infection are

  • (a) IL-4 and IL-13

  • (b) IgE and histamine

  • (c) IL-10 and TGF-β

  • (d) IL-1, TNF-α and IL-6 (acting through PGE2)

Show answer

Answer: (d) — They reset the hypothalamic set point.


Q15. A patient's temperature is 41 °C but the hypothalamic set point has not been reset. This is

  • (a) fever from endogenous pyrogens

  • (b) a PGE2-mediated fever

  • (c) hyperthermia, not fever

  • (d) septic fever

Show answer

Answer: (c) — Fever requires a reset set point.


Q16. The classic exogenous pyrogen from Gram-negative bacteria is

  • (a) flagellin only

  • (b) peptidoglycan only

  • (c) teichoic acid

  • (d) lipopolysaccharide (endotoxin)

Show answer

Answer: (d) — S. aureus toxic shock toxin is another.


Q17. A plasma protein made by the liver that rises during inflammation and after tissue damage is

  • (a) C-reactive protein

  • (b) albumin

  • (c) prealbumin

  • (d) transferrin

Show answer

Answer: (a) — Acute-phase proteins can rise or fall.


Q18. The ESR measures

  • (a) white cell count

  • (b) the rate at which red cells settle in blood

  • (c) CRP concentration

  • (d) platelet function

Show answer

Answer: (b) — MeSH: Blood Sedimentation.


Q19. A granuloma is

  • (a) a scar

  • (b) a blood clot

  • (c) a collection of pus

  • (d) a small nodular collection of grouped mononuclear phagocytes

Show answer

Answer: (d) — Caused by infectious and non-infectious agents.


Q20. Epithelioid cells in a granuloma are

  • (a) epithelial cells

  • (b) plasma cells

  • (c) neutrophils

  • (d) activated macrophages after prolonged antigen stimulation

Show answer

Answer: (d) — They fuse to form giant cells.


Q21. A lymph node granuloma contains multinucleated giant cells with nuclei arranged in a peripheral horseshoe. These are

  • (a) Langhans giant cells

  • (b) foreign-body giant cells

  • (c) Touton cells

  • (d) Reed-Sternberg cells

Show answer

Answer: (a) — Seen in TB, syphilis, sarcoidosis, deep fungal infection.


Q22. Around foreign material in the skin, giant cells with many nuclei scattered irregularly in the cytoplasm are

  • (a) Langhans giant cells

  • (b) megakaryocytes

  • (c) foreign-body giant cells

  • (d) Reed-Sternberg cells

Show answer

Answer: (c) — They form around exogenous material.


Q23. A young adult with lung and lymph node involvement has granulomas without central necrosis; tests for infection are negative. The likely diagnosis is

  • (a) sarcoidosis

  • (b) tuberculosis

  • (c) foreign-body reaction

  • (d) lymphoma

Show answer

Answer: (a) — Non-caseating granulomas; lungs and lymphatics most often.


Q24. A patient with sarcoidosis has hypercalcaemia. The mechanism is

  • (a) bone metastases

  • (b) macrophages convert vitamin D to its active 1,25 form

  • (c) thiazide use

  • (d) PTH-related peptide from tumour

Show answer

Answer: (b) — Hypercalciuria may occur even with normal serum calcium.


Q25. In suspected sarcoidosis, a raised serum ACE is

  • (a) diagnostic

  • (b) a marker of TB

  • (c) always present

  • (d) suggestive but non-specific

Show answer

Answer: (d) — Also raised in hyperthyroidism, diabetes, silicosis, mycobacterial and fungal disease.


Q26. The pink, granular tissue on the base of a healing ulcer is made of

  • (a) fat cells

  • (b) epithelium only

  • (c) dense mature collagen only

  • (d) new capillaries with lymphocytes, macrophages and plasma cells

Show answer

Answer: (d) — Granulation tissue.


Q27. Spindle-shaped cells with contractile proteins that help heal wounds and also appear in fibrosis are

  • (a) plasma cells

  • (b) epithelioid cells

  • (c) mast cells

  • (d) myofibroblasts

Show answer

Answer: (d) — Found in granulation tissue.


Q28. Months after ear piercing, a firm scar grows well beyond the edges of the original wound. This is

  • (a) a hypertrophic scar

  • (b) a granuloma

  • (c) granulation tissue

  • (d) a keloid

Show answer

Answer: (d) — Hypertrophic scars stay within the wound and may regress.


Q29. An elevated scar that stays within the wound margins and later regresses by itself is

  • (a) a hypertrophic scar

  • (b) fibrosis

  • (c) a keloid

  • (d) a sarcoma

Show answer

Answer: (a) — MeSH.


Q30. A man on a very poor diet has bleeding gums, easy bruising and wounds that will not heal. The defect is in

  • (a) clotting factor VIII

  • (b) collagen formation (vitamin C deficiency)

  • (c) iron absorption

  • (d) platelet production

Show answer

Answer: (b) — Scurvy: defective collagen in small vessels.


Q31. Collagen makes up about what fraction of total body protein?

  • (a) half

  • (b) one-third

  • (c) two-thirds

  • (d) one-tenth

Show answer

Answer: (b) — Main constituent of skin, connective tissue, bone and teeth.


Q32. A localised collection of pus in a tissue is called

  • (a) a transudate

  • (b) a keloid

  • (c) a granuloma

  • (d) an abscess

Show answer

Answer: (d) — Usually with signs of infection.

Active Recall

From memory: list the cardinal signs and contrast exudate and transudate; describe neutrophil rolling, adhesion, chemotaxis and killing with their molecules; give the action of each major mediator and the pyrogens; match LAD, CGD and Chédiak-Higashi to their defects; describe granulomas and giant cells in TB and sarcoidosis; and explain granulation tissue, keloids and scurvy.