Rheumatology for NEET PG Medicine: Rheumatoid Arthritis, Spondyloarthritis, Gout, SLE, Systemic Sclerosis, Vasculitis

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🎯 Exam priority: High. Expect: RA vs OA vs psoriatic patterns, morning stiffness, deformities, atlantoaxial risk, methotrexate dose and TB screening before biologics, HLA-B27 and sacroiliitis, reactive arthritis triad, gout crystals and urate target, septic arthritis organism, SLE antibodies, anti-Ro and heart block, scleroderma renal crisis and ACE inhibitor, GCA urgency, Takayasu, PAN–hepatitis B, GPA c-ANCA, IgA vasculitis.

CBME mapping: GM 7.1–7.22. Immunopathology is in Pathology; DMARD pharmacology in Pharmacology; orthopaedic joint surgery in Orthopaedics.

Arthritis patterns; gout and septic arthritis; SLE and systemic sclerosis; vasculitis

Arthritis patterns, gout, SLE and scleroderma, vasculitis. Drawn by TrackNation.

Rheumatoid and Osteoarthritis

  • RA: symmetric inflammation of peripheral joints (wrists, MCPs) — almost any joint except the DIPs; morning stiffness > 60 minutes; swan-neck and boutonnière deformities; carpal tunnel; cervical atlantoaxial subluxation. Extra-articular: nodules, ILD, pericarditis, Felty syndrome, Sjögren, episcleritis; subcutaneous nodules in up to 30%. RF and anti-CCP (RF is also low-titre positive in 3% of people and 20% of the elderly).

  • Treatment: methotrexate 10–15 mg once weekly with daily folic acid, increased to 25 mg; benefit within ~6 weeks. Add a biologic if inadequate, or use triple therapy (methotrexate + hydroxychloroquine + sulfasalazine). Screen for TB (PPD or IGRA) and hepatitis B/C before biologics.

  • Osteoarthritis: activity-related pain, stiffness < 30 minutes; Heberden (DIP) and Bouchard (PIP) nodes; thumb CMC; osteophytes and sclerosis on X-ray. Education, weight loss, joint protection, topical/oral NSAIDs.

Spondyloarthritis, Crystals and Septic Joints

  • Ankylosing spondylitis: HLA-B27 in 90% (of White patients; also up to 10% of the population); sacroiliitis on imaging; anterior uveitis, aortitis, conduction defects; late bamboo spine. NSAIDs, TNF or IL-17 inhibitors, exercise.

  • Reactive arthritis: after Chlamydia (genital) or Shigella/Salmonella (enteric) infection; urethritis or cervicitis, conjunctivitis, keratoderma blennorrhagicum.

  • Psoriatic arthritis: asymmetric, DIP joints, dactylitis, nail disease, arthritis mutilans (telescoping digits).

  • Gout: first MTP flare; needle-shaped, negatively birefringent urate crystals; tophi. Flares: NSAIDs, colchicine or glucocorticoids. Long term: allopurinol, febuxostat or probenecid to urate < 6 mg/dL. Continue urate-lowering therapy during a flare — MSD states there is no contraindication to starting it during a flare. Thiazide and loop diuretics raise urate.

  • CPPD: positively birefringent crystals; chondrocalcinosis of the knee.

  • Septic arthritis: S. aureus commonest; gonococcus in sexually active young people; antibiotics plus joint drainage.

SLE, Systemic Sclerosis, Vasculitis

  • SLE: arthritis, Raynaud, malar rash, serositis, nephritis, CNS disease, cytopenias. ANA screen; anti-dsDNA is highly specific; anti-Sm, anti-Ro/La, C3/C4. Hydroxychloroquine for all patients. Anti-Ro in a mother → congenital heart block. Drug-induced lupus resolves when the drug stops.

  • Systemic sclerosis: Raynaud, dysphagia, heartburn, finger skin thickening. Limited (CREST) vs diffuse. Anti-Scl-70, anticentromere. ILD and renal crisis are the major complications — renal crisis needs an ACE inhibitor promptly.

Vasculitis (MSD)

Who / what

Clue

Treatment

Giant cell arteritis

Age 50 to > 90 (mean ~70)

Headache, scalp tenderness, jaw claudication, visual loss; PMR in 40–60%

Steroids at once; biopsy may follow

Takayasu

Women 15–30

Asymmetric pulses/BP, limb claudication

—

Polyarteritis nodosa

~20% have hepatitis B or C

Kidney, skin, nerves, gut; lungs spared

—

GPA

c-ANCA (anti-PR3)

Sinusitis, epistaxis, saddle nose, lungs, kidneys

Steroids + rituximab or cyclophosphamide

IgA vasculitis

Mostly children

Palpable purpura, arthralgia, GI symptoms, nephritis

—

Traps the Examiner Sets

  • RA spares DIPs; OA and psoriatic arthritis involve them.

  • Methotrexate is weekly, not daily.

  • Gout: negative needles; CPPD: positive rhomboid-type crystals.

  • Suspected GCA: steroids first — do not wait for biopsy.

  • Scleroderma renal crisis: ACE inhibitor.

Memory Hooks & Shortcuts

Shortcuts to lock in this article's numbers and lists. Each one only re-packages facts proven above.

  • 🧠 RA 'Rarely At DIP'; OA and Psoriatic 'Down In the DIP' — DIP involvement

  • 🧠 Methotrexate: 'Monday only' — once weekly — methotrexate

  • 🧠 Gout 'Negative Needles'; CPPD 'Positive Pyrophosphate' — crystals

  • 🧠 Reactive arthritis: 'Can't see, can't pee, can't climb a tree' — reactive arthritis

  • 🧠 GCA: 'Steroids before scalpel' — GCA

  • 🧠 Scleroderma kidney: 'ACE saves the kidney' — renal crisis

Rapid-Revision Cards

  • RA pattern

    Symmetric wrists/MCPs; spares DIP; stiffness > 60 min.

  • RA deformities

    Swan-neck, boutonnière; atlantoaxial subluxation.

  • RA antibodies

    RF, anti-CCP.

  • Methotrexate

    10–15 mg weekly + folic acid; max 25 mg.

  • Before biologics

    Screen TB (PPD/IGRA), hepatitis B/C.

  • Felty

    RA + splenomegaly + neutropenia.

  • OA

    Stiffness < 30 min; Heberden DIP, Bouchard PIP.

  • AS

    HLA-B27; sacroiliitis; uveitis; NSAIDs.

  • Reactive arthritis

    Chlamydia/Shigella; urethritis, conjunctivitis.

  • Psoriatic

    DIP, dactylitis, nails, mutilans.

  • Gout crystals

    Needle, negative birefringence.

  • Gout flare Rx

    NSAID, colchicine, steroid.

  • Urate target

    < 6 mg/dL.

  • ULT in flare

    Continue.

  • CPPD

    Positive birefringence; chondrocalcinosis.

  • Septic arthritis

    S. aureus; drain.

  • SLE antibody

    Anti-dsDNA highly specific.

  • SLE drug

    Hydroxychloroquine for all.

  • Anti-Ro

    Congenital heart block.

  • SSc renal crisis

    ACE inhibitor.

  • GCA

    > 50; jaw claudication; steroids now.

  • Takayasu

    Women 15–30; unequal pulses.

  • PAN

    Hep B/C ~20%; lungs spared.

  • GPA

    c-ANCA/PR3; saddle nose.

  • IgA vasculitis

    Children; palpable purpura.

Sources

Facts in this article were checked against these documents.

  • MSD Manual Professional: Rheumatoid Arthritis; Osteoarthritis; Ankylosing Spondylitis; Reactive Arthritis; Psoriatic Arthritis; Gout; CPPD; Acute Infectious Arthritis; SLE; Systemic Sclerosis; Giant Cell Arteritis; Takayasu Arteritis; Polyarteritis Nodosa; GPA; IgA Vasculitis — Merck & Co. (MSD Manuals), reviewed 2025–26 (link)

  • Competency Based Undergraduate Curriculum, General Medicine (GM 7) — National Medical Commission, 2024

Test Yourself: Practice Questions

Thirty questions in NEET PG style, most of them clinical vignettes.

Practice Questions (NEET PG pattern)

Original questions written in the style of the exam: +4 for a correct answer, −1 for a wrong one. Every answer was checked against the sources listed above. NEET PG papers are not published by NBEMS, so these are not past-paper questions.

Q1. A woman has symmetric pain and swelling of wrists and MCP joints with morning stiffness lasting over an hour; DIP joints are normal. The likely diagnosis is

  • (a) gout

  • (b) rheumatoid arthritis

  • (c) psoriatic arthritis

  • (d) osteoarthritis

Show answer

Answer: (b) — RA spares DIPs; stiffness > 60 minutes.


Q2. The joints typically spared in rheumatoid arthritis are the

  • (a) knees

  • (b) wrists

  • (c) distal interphalangeal joints

  • (d) MCP joints

Show answer

Answer: (c) — OA and psoriatic arthritis involve DIPs.


Q3. A patient with long-standing destructive RA develops occipital headache and hyperreflexia. The cervical complication to look for is

  • (a) lumbar disc prolapse

  • (b) atlantoaxial subluxation

  • (c) temporomandibular ankylosis only

  • (d) sacroiliitis

Show answer

Answer: (b) — Flexion–extension cervical radiographs.


Q4. The usual starting dose of methotrexate in rheumatoid arthritis is

  • (a) 2.5 mg monthly

  • (b) 50 mg weekly

  • (c) 10 mg daily

  • (d) 10–15 mg once a week with daily folic acid

Show answer

Answer: (d) — Increase to 25 mg weekly if needed.


Q5. Before starting a TNF inhibitor for RA, the patient must be screened for

  • (a) G6PD

  • (b) latent tuberculosis (PPD or IGRA) and hepatitis B/C

  • (c) HLA-B27

  • (d) anti-dsDNA

Show answer

Answer: (b) — Reactivated TB is the main risk.


Q6. An extra-articular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis is

  • (a) tophi

  • (b) Felty syndrome

  • (c) dactylitis

  • (d) keratoderma blennorrhagicum

Show answer

Answer: (b) — Others: nodules (up to 30%), ILD, pericarditis, Sjögren, episcleritis.


Q7. Bony swellings of the DIP joints in a patient with activity-related hand pain and brief morning stiffness are

  • (a) Bouchard nodes

  • (b) rheumatoid nodules

  • (c) tophi

  • (d) Heberden nodes of osteoarthritis

Show answer

Answer: (d) — Bouchard nodes are at PIPs.


Q8. Morning stiffness in osteoarthritis typically lasts

  • (a) more than 2 hours

  • (b) over 60 minutes

  • (c) all day

  • (d) less than 30 minutes

Show answer

Answer: (d) — RA: > 60 minutes.


Q9. A young man has inflammatory low back pain and an episode of anterior uveitis; MRI shows sacroiliitis. The associated HLA is

  • (a) HLA-DR4

  • (b) HLA-B5701

  • (c) HLA-B27

  • (d) HLA-DQ2

Show answer

Answer: (c) — Present in 90% of White patients with AS.


Q10. First-line drug treatment of ankylosing spondylitis is

  • (a) methotrexate

  • (b) hydroxychloroquine

  • (c) allopurinol

  • (d) NSAIDs (then TNF or IL-17 inhibitors)

Show answer

Answer: (d) — Plus exercise and posture.


Q11. After a sexually acquired infection, a man develops arthritis, urethritis, conjunctivitis and hyperkeratotic crusted skin lesions. The diagnosis is

  • (a) psoriatic arthritis

  • (b) gonococcal arthritis

  • (c) reactive arthritis (keratoderma blennorrhagicum)

  • (d) gout

Show answer

Answer: (c) — Chlamydia is most often implicated.


Q12. A patient with psoriasis has a 'sausage' swollen finger and DIP joint arthritis with nail changes. This is

  • (a) septic arthritis

  • (b) rheumatoid arthritis

  • (c) psoriatic arthritis

  • (d) osteoarthritis

Show answer

Answer: (c) — Dactylitis is not typical of RA.


Q13. A man wakes with an exquisitely painful, red, swollen first MTP joint. Synovial fluid shows needle-shaped, negatively birefringent crystals. The diagnosis is

  • (a) pseudogout (CPPD)

  • (b) gout

  • (c) septic arthritis

  • (d) reactive arthritis

Show answer

Answer: (b) — Monosodium urate.


Q14. Drugs used to treat an acute gout flare include

  • (a) aspirin

  • (b) allopurinol alone at high dose

  • (c) NSAIDs, colchicine or glucocorticoids

  • (d) probenecid only

Show answer

Answer: (c) — IL-1 inhibitors occasionally.


Q15. A patient already on allopurinol develops a gout flare. The allopurinol should be

  • (a) switched to probenecid

  • (b) continued at the same dose

  • (c) stopped

  • (d) doubled

Show answer

Answer: (b) — Adjust only after the flare settles.


Q16. The usual serum urate target on long-term urate-lowering therapy is

  • (a) < 2 mg/dL

  • (b) < 8.5 mg/dL

  • (c) < 6 mg/dL

  • (d) < 10 mg/dL

Show answer

Answer: (c) — Below the saturation point dissolves deposits.


Q17. A drug class that raises serum urate and can provoke gout is

  • (a) thiazide and loop diuretics

  • (b) statins

  • (c) calcium-channel blockers

  • (d) ACE inhibitors

Show answer

Answer: (a) — Also reduced GFR and alcohol.


Q18. An elderly patient has acute knee arthritis; X-ray shows cartilage calcification and fluid shows positively birefringent crystals. The diagnosis is

  • (a) osteoarthritis only

  • (b) septic arthritis

  • (c) calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease

  • (d) gout

Show answer

Answer: (c) — Chondrocalcinosis.


Q19. The most common cause of acute septic arthritis is

  • (a) Staphylococcus aureus

  • (b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae in all ages

  • (c) Brucella

  • (d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Show answer

Answer: (a) — Treat with antibiotics and drainage.


Q20. A young woman has a malar rash, arthritis, pleuritic pain and proteinuria; ANA is positive. The antibody most specific for SLE is

  • (a) anti-dsDNA

  • (b) rheumatoid factor

  • (c) anti-histone

  • (d) ANA

Show answer

Answer: (a) — Also anti-Sm.


Q21. The drug recommended for all patients with SLE is

  • (a) allopurinol

  • (b) cyclophosphamide

  • (c) hydroxychloroquine

  • (d) methotrexate

Show answer

Answer: (c) — Steroids and immunosuppressants for organ involvement.


Q22. A newborn has complete heart block. The mother most likely has antibodies to

  • (a) centromere

  • (b) Ro (SSA)

  • (c) PR3

  • (d) dsDNA

Show answer

Answer: (b) — Less common with anti-La alone.


Q23. Drug-induced lupus typically

  • (a) always involves the kidneys

  • (b) needs cyclophosphamide

  • (c) resolves after the drug is stopped

  • (d) is lifelong

Show answer

Answer: (c) — TNF inhibitors are among the causes.


Q24. A patient with diffuse systemic sclerosis develops scleroderma renal crisis. The treatment is

  • (a) an ACE inhibitor promptly

  • (b) high-dose steroids

  • (c) beta-blocker only

  • (d) dialysis without drugs

Show answer

Answer: (a) — Scleroderma renal crisis.


Q25. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is also called

  • (a) CREST syndrome

  • (b) mixed connective tissue disease

  • (c) Sjögren syndrome

  • (d) morphoea

Show answer

Answer: (a) — Anticentromere antibodies are typical.


Q26. A 72-year-old has new headache, temporal artery tenderness and jaw pain on chewing; ESR is high. The next step is

  • (a) start corticosteroids immediately, then arrange temporal artery biopsy

  • (b) start aspirin only

  • (c) MRI brain first and observe

  • (d) wait for biopsy before treatment

Show answer

Answer: (a) — Risk of blindness; biopsy remains positive for ~2 weeks.


Q27. In giant cell arteritis, features that carry a higher risk of blindness are

  • (a) jaw claudication and diplopia

  • (b) raised platelets

  • (c) shoulder stiffness

  • (d) fever and weight loss

Show answer

Answer: (a) — Amaurosis fugax may precede permanent loss.


Q28. A 24-year-old woman has arm claudication and a 30 mm Hg difference in systolic BP between arms. The likely diagnosis is

  • (a) coarctation in all cases

  • (b) giant cell arteritis

  • (c) PAN

  • (d) Takayasu arteritis

Show answer

Answer: (d) — Women aged 15–30; aorta and branches.


Q29. Polyarteritis nodosa is associated with hepatitis B or C in about

  • (a) 90%, with lung cavities

  • (b) 50% with sinusitis

  • (c) 20% of patients, and typically spares the lungs

  • (d) none

Show answer

Answer: (c) — Kidneys, skin, nerves, gut.


Q30. A patient has chronic bloody nasal discharge, saddle-nose deformity, lung involvement and haematuria; c-ANCA (anti-PR3) is positive. The diagnosis is

  • (a) SLE

  • (b) Churg–Strauss only

  • (c) PAN

  • (d) granulomatosis with polyangiitis

Show answer

Answer: (d) — Steroids + rituximab or cyclophosphamide.

Active Recall

From memory: contrast RA, OA and psoriatic arthritis, give methotrexate dosing and pre-biologic screening, describe ankylosing spondylitis and reactive arthritis, gout crystals, flare and long-term treatment, septic arthritis, SLE antibodies and treatment, scleroderma renal crisis, and the key features of GCA, Takayasu, PAN, GPA and IgA vasculitis.