Sepsis, Meningitis, Encephalitis, Tetanus, Rabies and COVID-19 for NEET PG Medicine

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🎯 Exam priority: High. Expect: septic shock definition and first-hour care, meningitis organisms and empirical cover, dexamethasone timing, CSF patterns, HSV encephalitis, tetanus signs and treatment, tetanus prophylaxis for wounds, rabies categories and schedules, RIG dose, re-exposure, and COVID-19 treatment by severity.

CBME mapping: GM 26.1–26.35. Malaria, dengue, typhoid and fevers are in article 9; HIV in article 10; TB in article 7. Immunisation schedules are in Community Medicine.

Rabies exposure categories and prophylaxis; sepsis and septic shock; bacterial meningitis and HSV encephalitis; tetanus; COVID-19 treatment

Rabies categories and schedules, sepsis, meningitis, tetanus and COVID-19. Drawn by TrackNation.

Sepsis and Septic Shock

  • Sepsis: life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection.

  • Septic shock: sepsis needing vasopressors to keep MAP ≥ 65 mm Hg with lactate > 2 mmol/L despite adequate fluids. Mortality is about 40–60%.

  • qSOFA uses blood pressure, respiratory rate and GCS — no lab tests needed; best outside the ICU.

  • Resuscitation: crystalloid, usually at least 30 mL/kg in the first 3 hours; then norepinephrine or vasopressin to MAP ≥ 65. Early antibiotics and source control (drain abscesses, remove infected catheters).

Meningitis and Encephalitis

  • Headache, fever and neck stiffness; petechiae or purpura suggest meningococcaemia. Meningococcal sepsis can cause bilateral adrenal haemorrhage (Waterhouse–Friderichsen).

  • Do not delay treatment: give antibiotics and dexamethasone (before or with the first antibiotic dose, every 6 h for 4 days; best evidence in pneumococcal meningitis) — before CT if the lumbar puncture will be delayed.

  • Bacterial CSF: turbid, raised pressure, neutrophils, high protein, low glucose (CSF:blood ratio < 0.23 strongly suggests bacteria).

  • Meningococcal contacts: rifampicin 600 mg 12-hourly × 4 doses, or one dose of ceftriaxone 250 mg IM.

  • HSV encephalitis: olfactory auras (temporal lobe), MRI oedema in orbitofrontal and temporal areas, CSF PCR for HSV; treat with acyclovir.

  • ICMR: intubate if GCS < 8.

Age (MSD)

Usual organisms

Empirical therapy

18–50 years

S. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis, S. aureus

Ceftriaxone or cefotaxime + vancomycin (+ acyclovir if HSV possible)

> 50 years

S. pneumoniae, L. monocytogenes, S. aureus, gram-negatives

Ceftriaxone or cefotaxime + ampicillin + vancomycin

ICMR STW (India)

Suspected pyogenic meningitis

Ceftriaxone 2 g + vancomycin, within 30 min of arrival; add ampicillin if > 50 or immunocompromised

Tetanus and Botulism

  • Clostridium tetani toxin (tetanospasmin) binds nerve endings irreversibly and travels retrograde to the CNS. Incubation 2–50 days (average 5–10).

  • Jaw stiffness is the most frequent first symptom, then trismus, risus sardonicus, opisthotonos and spasms; autonomic instability. Neonatal tetanus starts from a poorly cleaned umbilical stump in babies of unimmunised mothers.

  • Treatment: human tetanus immune globulin (TIG 500 units IM), wound debridement, metronidazole, benzodiazepines for spasms, magnesium sulfate for autonomic instability, ventilation if needed. The disease gives no immunity — complete the vaccine series.

  • Wound prophylaxis: unknown or < 3 doses → toxoid for any wound plus TIG for dirty wounds; ≥ 3 doses → toxoid if ≥ 10 years (clean) or ≥ 5 years (dirty) since the last dose, no TIG.

  • Botulism: symmetric cranial nerve palsies with descending flaccid paralysis and no sensory loss.

Rabies

  • Incubation averages 1–2 months (can exceed a year). Furious form (80%) with hydrophobia; paralytic form (20%). Almost always fatal once symptoms start.

  • Wound care first: wash with soap and running water; avoid suturing; no irritants.

  • RIG for all category III (and category II in the immunocompromised): ERIG 40 IU/kg or HRIG 20 IU/kg, infiltrated into and around the wounds.

  • Vaccine: IM Essen days 0, 3, 7, 14, 28 in the deltoid (never gluteal); or intradermal updated Thai Red Cross 2-2-2-0-2 (two sites on days 0, 3, 7, 28).

  • Start PEP at once; the 10-day observation applies only to dogs and cats. Pregnancy and infancy are not contraindications. Previously vaccinated: two boosters on days 0 and 3, no RIG.

Category (NCDC)

Contact

Prophylaxis

I

Touching or feeding animals; licks on intact skin

None if the history is reliable

II

Nibbling of uncovered skin; minor scratches without bleeding

Wound care + anti-rabies vaccine

III

Single or multiple transdermal bites or scratches; licks on broken skin; any wild-animal bite

Wound care + rabies immunoglobulin + vaccine

COVID-19

  • Incubation typically 2–10 days; diagnosis by RT-PCR/NAAT or antigen test; imaging shows ground-glass opacities and consolidation.

  • High-risk mild–moderate: nirmatrelvir/ritonavir (preferred) or molnupiravir, started within 5 days of symptoms.

  • Dexamethasone only when supplemental oxygen is needed — not for patients who do not need oxygen.

  • MIS-C: post-infectious inflammatory syndrome in children resembling Kawasaki disease.

Traps the Examiner Sets

  • Septic shock needs BOTH vasopressor-dependent MAP ≥ 65 and lactate > 2.

  • Over 50 with meningitis → add ampicillin for Listeria.

  • Dexamethasone goes with or before the first antibiotic dose, not after.

  • Rabies: lick on broken skin = category III; previously vaccinated = 2 boosters, no RIG.

  • Tetanus: descending paralysis is botulism, not tetanus.

Memory Hooks & Shortcuts

Shortcuts to lock in this article's numbers and lists. Each one only re-packages facts proven above.

  • 🧠 Septic shock '65/2': MAP 65 on pressors, lactate above 2 — septic shock

  • 🧠 Meningitis over fifty → add 'A for Aged' Ampicillin (Listeria) — meningitis > 50

  • 🧠 HSV loves the Temporal lobe: smells and memory — HSV encephalitis

  • 🧠 Tetanus: 'Lockjaw, Laugh (risus), Leaning back (opisthotonos)' — tetanus signs

  • 🧠 Rabies Essen '0-3-7-14-28'; ID Thai '2-2-2-0-2' — rabies schedules

  • 🧠 ERIG 40, HRIG 20 — Horse needs double — RIG dose

Rapid-Revision Cards

  • Sepsis

    Organ dysfunction from dysregulated host response.

  • Septic shock

    Vasopressor for MAP ≥ 65 + lactate > 2 mmol/L.

  • Sepsis fluids

    ≥ 30 mL/kg crystalloid in 3 h.

  • qSOFA

    BP, RR, GCS.

  • Meningitis 18–50

    Ceftriaxone + vancomycin.

  • Meningitis > 50

    Add ampicillin (Listeria).

  • Dexamethasone in meningitis

    Before/with first antibiotic; q6h × 4 d.

  • Bacterial CSF

    Neutrophils, protein ↑, glucose ratio < 0.23.

  • Waterhouse–Friderichsen

    Meningococcal sepsis + bilateral adrenal haemorrhage.

  • Meningococcal contacts

    Rifampicin 600 mg q12h × 4, or ceftriaxone 250 mg IM.

  • HSV encephalitis

    Temporal lobe, olfactory aura; acyclovir.

  • Tetanus toxin

    Tetanospasmin; irreversible binding, retrograde.

  • Tetanus signs

    Jaw stiffness → trismus, risus sardonicus, opisthotonos.

  • Tetanus Rx

    TIG 500 U IM, debride, metronidazole, benzodiazepines, MgSO4.

  • Tetanus immunity

    Disease gives none — vaccinate.

  • Dirty wound, ≥ 3 doses

    Toxoid if ≥ 5 years; no TIG.

  • Botulism

    Descending flaccid paralysis, no sensory loss.

  • Rabies forms

    Furious 80% (hydrophobia), paralytic 20%.

  • Rabies Cat III

    Transdermal bite, lick on broken skin, wild animal → RIG + vaccine.

  • RIG dose

    ERIG 40 IU/kg, HRIG 20 IU/kg, into wound.

  • Essen IM

    Days 0, 3, 7, 14, 28 (deltoid).

  • ID Thai Red Cross

    2-2-2-0-2: days 0, 3, 7, 28.

  • Rabies re-exposure

    Boosters days 0 and 3; no RIG.

  • COVID dexamethasone

    Only if oxygen needed.

Sources

Facts in this article were checked against these documents.

  • National Guidelines on Rabies Prophylaxis — National Centre for Disease Control (National Rabies Control Programme), MoHFW, 2015 (link)

  • Standard Treatment Workflow: Neuroinfections — Indian Council of Medical Research, DHR, 2019 (link)

  • MSD Manual Professional: Sepsis and Septic Shock; Acute Bacterial Meningitis; Encephalitis; Tetanus; Rabies; Botulism; COVID-19 — Merck & Co. (MSD Manuals), reviewed 2025–26 (link)

  • Competency Based Undergraduate Curriculum, General Medicine (GM 26) — National Medical Commission, 2024

Test Yourself: Practice Questions

Thirty questions in NEET PG style, most of them clinical vignettes.

Practice Questions (NEET PG pattern)

Original questions written in the style of the exam: +4 for a correct answer, −1 for a wrong one. Every answer was checked against the sources listed above. NEET PG papers are not published by NBEMS, so these are not past-paper questions.

Q1. Sepsis is currently defined as

  • (a) two SIRS criteria with infection

  • (b) bacteraemia with fever

  • (c) life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection

  • (d) any positive blood culture

Show answer

Answer: (c) — SIRS-based definitions are no longer used.


Q2. A patient with pneumonia remains hypotensive after adequate fluids and needs norepinephrine to keep MAP at 65 mm Hg. Septic shock also requires

  • (a) positive blood culture

  • (b) temperature > 39 °C

  • (c) WBC > 12,000

  • (d) serum lactate > 2 mmol/L

Show answer

Answer: (d) — Both vasopressor need and lactate.


Q3. In sepsis-induced hypotension, most patients need crystalloid of at least

  • (a) 100 mL/kg in 1 hour

  • (b) no fluids

  • (c) 30 mL/kg in the first 3 hours

  • (d) 5 mL/kg over 24 hours

Show answer

Answer: (c) — The goal is reperfusion without pulmonary oedema.


Q4. A septic patient remains hypotensive despite fluid resuscitation. The drug used to raise MAP to at least 65 mm Hg is

  • (a) nitroglycerin

  • (b) norepinephrine (or vasopressin)

  • (c) propranolol

  • (d) furosemide

Show answer

Answer: (b) — Epinephrine may be added second.


Q5. The qSOFA score uses

  • (a) platelets and PaO2

  • (b) temperature and WBC

  • (c) lactate, creatinine and bilirubin

  • (d) blood pressure, respiratory rate and Glasgow Coma Scale

Show answer

Answer: (d) — No lab results needed.


Q6. A septic ICU patient's likely source is an infected central venous catheter. Besides antibiotics, the key step is

  • (a) leave it and add steroids

  • (b) start heparin

  • (c) remove the catheter (source control)

  • (d) flush it with saline

Show answer

Answer: (c) — Source control as soon as possible.


Q7. A young adult has fever, headache, neck stiffness and a petechial rash. The most likely organism is

  • (a) Streptococcus agalactiae

  • (b) Listeria monocytogenes

  • (c) Cryptococcus

  • (d) Neisseria meningitidis

Show answer

Answer: (d) — Petechiae or purpura suggest meningococcaemia.


Q8. A 68-year-old has acute bacterial meningitis. Compared with a younger adult, the empirical regimen adds

  • (a) doxycycline

  • (b) metronidazole

  • (c) azithromycin

  • (d) ampicillin to cover Listeria

Show answer

Answer: (d) — Ceftriaxone + vancomycin + ampicillin.


Q9. Per the ICMR neuroinfection workflow, empirical antibiotics in suspected pyogenic meningitis should be given

  • (a) only after MRI

  • (b) within 30 minutes of arrival — ceftriaxone 2 g + vancomycin

  • (c) after CSF culture results

  • (d) after 24 hours of observation

Show answer

Answer: (b) — Add ampicillin if older than 50 or immunocompromised.


Q10. In suspected bacterial meningitis, dexamethasone should be given

  • (a) after 3 days of antibiotics

  • (b) immediately before or with the first antibiotic dose

  • (c) only if cultures grow S. aureus

  • (d) never

Show answer

Answer: (b) — Every 6 hours for 4 days; best evidence in pneumococcal meningitis.


Q11. A patient with suspected bacterial meningitis needs a CT before lumbar puncture, which will take an hour. Antibiotics should be

  • (a) started before neuroimaging

  • (b) withheld until CT is reported

  • (c) given only orally

  • (d) withheld until the CSF is obtained

Show answer

Answer: (a) — Never delay treatment for imaging.


Q12. CSF in acute bacterial meningitis typically shows

  • (a) eosinophils only

  • (b) normal cells and protein

  • (c) lymphocytes with normal glucose

  • (d) neutrophils, raised protein and low CSF:blood glucose ratio

Show answer

Answer: (d) — A ratio < 0.23 strongly suggests bacteria.


Q13. A patient with meningococcal sepsis develops shock with bilateral adrenal haemorrhage. This is

  • (a) Addison disease from TB

  • (b) Nelson syndrome

  • (c) Sheehan syndrome

  • (d) Waterhouse–Friderichsen syndrome

Show answer

Answer: (d) — Treat with hydrocortisone as well.


Q14. A household contact of a meningococcal meningitis patient should receive

  • (a) penicillin for 2 weeks

  • (b) vancomycin

  • (c) no prophylaxis

  • (d) rifampicin 600 mg 12-hourly for 4 doses (or single-dose ceftriaxone 250 mg IM)

Show answer

Answer: (d) — Postexposure chemoprophylaxis for close contacts.


Q15. A patient with fever and confusion reports auras of smelling burnt meat; MRI shows temporal and orbitofrontal oedema. The drug to start is

  • (a) acyclovir

  • (b) amphotericin B

  • (c) praziquantel

  • (d) ceftriaxone alone

Show answer

Answer: (a) — HSV encephalitis; confirm with CSF PCR.


Q16. Tetanus toxin causes disease by

  • (a) destroying motor neurons by bacterial invasion

  • (b) blocking acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction

  • (c) binding nerve endings irreversibly and travelling retrograde to the CNS

  • (d) invading muscle directly

Show answer

Answer: (c) — Blocking ACh release is botulism.


Q17. A man with an untreated deep puncture wound has jaw stiffness, a fixed smile with raised eyebrows and painful spasms. The facial sign is

  • (a) mask facies

  • (b) Bell palsy

  • (c) myasthenic snarl

  • (d) risus sardonicus

Show answer

Answer: (d) — Jaw stiffness is the commonest early symptom.


Q18. The most frequent early symptom of generalised tetanus is

  • (a) hydrophobia

  • (b) descending paralysis

  • (c) jaw stiffness

  • (d) sensory loss

Show answer

Answer: (c) — Trismus follows.


Q19. In a patient with tetanus, the antibiotic of choice is

  • (a) ciprofloxacin

  • (b) chloramphenicol

  • (c) gentamicin

  • (d) metronidazole

Show answer

Answer: (d) — Antibiotics matter less than debridement and support.


Q20. Human tetanus immune globulin in tetanus

  • (a) replaces vaccination

  • (b) reverses toxin already bound to nerves

  • (c) is given orally

  • (d) neutralises only unbound toxin; 500 units IM once is effective

Show answer

Answer: (d) — Bound toxin cannot be neutralised.


Q21. In tetanus, magnesium sulfate infusion is used mainly to

  • (a) neutralise toxin

  • (b) prevent hypoglycaemia

  • (c) control autonomic instability (catecholamine surges)

  • (d) treat infection

Show answer

Answer: (c) — Benzodiazepines control spasms.


Q22. A patient recovering from tetanus asks whether they are now immune. The answer is

  • (a) yes, for 10 years

  • (b) yes, for life

  • (c) only if TIG was given

  • (d) no — tetanus infection gives no immunity; complete the vaccine series

Show answer

Answer: (d) — Vaccinate after recovery.


Q23. An adult with a dirty wound had a full primary tetanus series; the last dose was 7 years ago. Management is

  • (a) toxoid + TIG

  • (b) TIG only

  • (c) tetanus toxoid booster, no TIG

  • (d) nothing

Show answer

Answer: (c) — ≥ 5 years since last dose for dirty wounds.


Q24. A patient has symmetric cranial nerve palsies with descending flaccid paralysis and no sensory loss after eating home-canned food. The diagnosis is

  • (a) Guillain–Barré syndrome

  • (b) botulism

  • (c) tetanus

  • (d) rabies

Show answer

Answer: (b) — Toxin blocks acetylcholine release; no sensory loss.


Q25. A stray dog licks a child's abraded (broken) skin. Under the national guidelines this is

  • (a) no exposure

  • (b) category II — vaccine only

  • (c) category III — wound care, rabies immunoglobulin and vaccine

  • (d) category I — no treatment

Show answer

Answer: (c) — Licks on broken skin are category III.


Q26. A man has a minor scratch without bleeding from a dog. The prophylaxis is

  • (a) no treatment

  • (b) RIG only

  • (c) wound care + RIG + vaccine

  • (d) wound care + anti-rabies vaccine

Show answer

Answer: (d) — Category II; add RIG only if immunocompromised.


Q27. The dose of equine rabies immunoglobulin is

  • (a) 40 IU/kg infiltrated into and around the wounds

  • (b) 10 IU/kg IV

  • (c) 1 mL per wound regardless of weight

  • (d) 20 IU/kg into the gluteus

Show answer

Answer: (a) — HRIG is 20 IU/kg.


Q28. The intramuscular Essen schedule of anti-rabies vaccine is given on days

  • (a) 0, 7, 21 in the gluteus

  • (b) 0 and 28 only

  • (c) 0, 1, 2, 3, 4

  • (d) 0, 3, 7, 14 and 28 in the deltoid

Show answer

Answer: (d) — Gluteal injection impairs absorption.


Q29. A veterinarian who completed full rabies vaccination 2 years ago is bitten by a dog. Management is

  • (a) RIG only

  • (b) full course plus RIG

  • (c) no treatment

  • (d) wound care and two booster doses on days 0 and 3, no RIG

Show answer

Answer: (d) — Previously vaccinated persons need only boosters.


Q30. A patient with COVID-19 has a normal oxygen saturation on room air. Regarding dexamethasone,

  • (a) give a high dose for 3 weeks

  • (b) it is not recommended unless supplemental oxygen is needed

  • (c) it replaces antivirals

  • (d) give to all patients

Show answer

Answer: (b) — Survival benefit only in those needing oxygen or ventilation.

Active Recall

From memory: define sepsis and septic shock and outline resuscitation; give meningitis organisms, empirical antibiotics by age, dexamethasone timing and CSF findings; describe HSV encephalitis; describe tetanus signs, treatment and wound prophylaxis; give rabies categories, RIG dose, vaccine schedules and re-exposure; and state when dexamethasone is used in COVID-19.